Which is true?
Premise #1 - Does culture dictate
doctrine in Scripture? OR
Premise #2 - Does Scripture USE
culture to dictate doctrine?
What’s the
difference?
Well, the first
premise is used by those who wish to make certain doctrinal stands in the Bible
irrelevant because the cultural norms (in the age in which Scripture was
written) were different than the cultural norms of our day.
One of the most
recent examples of this has been by some in the LGBT community that God’s
condemnations of that lifestyle were based on cultural mores of the day. Commenting
on the judgement against sodomy in Leviticus, one pro-gay writer noted: “Critical scholars observe that Levitical
laws in general condemned activities that the Gentiles did, and these
guidelines provided an exclusive identity for Israelites and Jews. So it is
assumed the laws are not binding on Christians, who are those Gentiles that are
now in the faith community.”
In other words – culture dictates doctrine. Those
in the LGBT community struggle mightily to make sodomy an issue of the culture of the day in which Scripture was written…
thus allowing them to ignore an otherwise obvious Biblical condemnation of an immoral lifestyle.
A similar approach is
often used for Scriptures that describes women in Scripture. One preacher said “the social structure (of the day Scripture
was written) was dominated by males. Jews and Greeks would not have questioned
this inferior place given to women.”
In other words, you
can set aside any Scripture that deals with women because, back then, the world
was culturally inferior to ours. Women were viewed as a lower class of
individual, men dominated the system, and men like Jesus and Paul didn’t want
to upset the system and make the Gospel unacceptable to the masses. In other
words, culture dictated doctrine. Any scripture that deals with a woman’s role
in the church is tainted by this “truth.”
No matter what issue is handled in this
fashion, there are at a couple serious problems.
First, this form of hermeneutics (where
culture dictates theology) can be applied to almost any doctrine someone
opposes. It opens a literal pandora’s box of heresy on any topic you care to
address.
Second, I Timothy
3:16 says that “all Scripture is God-breathed.” Thus, if Jesus or Paul or any
other Bible writer failed to address a questionable topic they were either
cowards (for failing to solidly support the more enlightened viewpoint) or
bigots, or racists, or … worse.
So that leaves us
with the 2nd premise listed above: Does Scripture USE
culture to dictate doctrine? My answer: yes. There’s no question that the Bible
was written to a culture than ours, and so there is no question that
occasionally you’ll encounter culturally based statements in Scripture. But in
those cultural statements, there is still doctrinal application.
For example – Paul
often wrote to churches and told them to “Greet one another with a holy kiss.” (1
Corinthians 16:20) Unless you’re willing to risk a slap or punch in the face,
you’re not going to do that today with anyone other than your spouse. It’s
unquestionably a cultural practice. And yet, it has a doctrinal application
where we use affection for each other. In our culture, that affection would be
appropriately displayed by shaking hands, or even hugging. In another culture
(such as France’s) a kiss on the cheek would be in keeping with that which is acceptable
there.
But we should be
extremely cautious about the “cultural” argument. It can be – and often has been
– used to undermine God’s morality and church discipline within congregations.
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